The following Level 2 Principles of Exercise, Fitness and Health (PEFH) mock exam is provided as a FREE resource for anyone working towards a fitness instructor or personal training qualification, that wants to test their knowledge and understanding before they complete their final theory assessment.
The following PEFH mock exam covers a broad-range of knowledge and understanding relating to health, fitness, nutrition and exercise programming. Much of the information in this exam does require a working knowledge of functional anatomy and physiology, although the exam itself does not specifically assess such understanding. You may therefore want to work on the Level 2 Anatomy and Physiology mock exam first.
There are 40 multiple-choice questions presented in this mock exam and you will be required to answer 28 correct (70%) to pass.
Enjoy and good luck!
1/40: Which of the following health benefits would result from regular walking?
A
Increased blood pressure
C
Increased resting heart rate
D
Decreased life expectancy
2/40: The development of balance would be required for which of the following activities?
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3/40: Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of strength training?
4/40: Which of the following intensities aligns with the ACSM’s guidelines for effective cardiovascular exercise?
A
50-100% of max heart rate
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5/40: Which of the following is a long-term adaptation of cardiovascular training?
A
Increased lactic acid accumulation
B
Decreased carbon dioxide removal
C
Increased capillarisation
D
Decreased oxygen delivery
6/40: Which somatotype is characterized by broad shoulders, a narrow waist and a generally muscular build?
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7/40: On the ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale, which of the following would reflect a ‘somewhat hard’ intensity?
8/40: During exercise, failing to cool-down appropriately can cause which of the following to occur?
A
Elevated heart rate post-exercise
B
Lower body temperature post-exercise
D
Blood pooling in the lower limbs
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9/40: Which of the following types of muscle contraction are most likely to cause ‘delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMs)?
10/40: Which of the following will primarily recruit faster-twitch muscle fibers during resistance training exercises?
A
High load and high repetitions
B
High load and low repetitions
C
Low load and high repetitions
D
Low load and low repetitions
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11/40: Which of the following training objectives requires speed as a key component?
12/40: While performing resistance exercises, which if the following will increase the intensity of the exercise?
A
Increasing the speed of repetitions
B
Decreasing the number of repetitions
C
Increasing the lever length
D
Decreasing the range of movement
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13/40: An ability to cope with stressful situations in everyday life and to make good decisions is an example of which component of total fitness?
14/40: Which of the following defines physical fitness?
A
Maintaining an active lifestyle that contributes to maintaining levels of cardiovascular and muscular fitness and flexibility
B
Eating a variety of foods from major food groups and maintaining a calorie intake appropriate for needs and demands
C
Being free from disease and illness and making lifestyle choices that maintain this component
D
Awareness of and ability to manage and express emotions assertively and with respect to self and others
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15/40: Which of the following is a genetic factor influencing an individual's training potential?
16/40: Which of the following is a short-term effect of exercise on blood pressure?
A
Systolic pressure increases
B
Systolic pressure decreases
C
Systolic and diastolic pressure remain the same
D
Systolic and diastolic pressure both decrease
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17/40: According the American College of Sports medicine (ACSM), what is the recommended intensity and duration of stretching to improve flexibility?
A
5-10 seconds with no feelings of discomfort
B
10-15 seconds to a point of mild discomfort
C
10-30 seconds to a point of mild discomfort
D
10-30 seconds to a point of severe discomfort
18/40: Which of the following symptoms might be an effect of blood pooling?
A
Nauseas, dizziness or fainting
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19/40: What is a training plateau?
A
When improvements and adaptations tail off when training load is increased
B
When improvements and adaptations tail off when training load is decreased
C
When improvements and adaptations are lost when training is completely stopped
D
When improvements and adaptations improve when training load is increased
20/40: Which of the following would increase the intensity of a resistance training exercise?
A
Performing repetitions faster, increasing the contraction time of muscles
B
Performing repetitions slower, increasing the contraction time of muscles
C
Increasing the rest time between sets
D
Increasing the number of sets performed
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21/40: The volume of a training programme is determined by which of the following variables?
A
Frequency and intensity
22/40: Why are supine exercises after the first trimester of pregnancy contraindicated?
A
They can cause ligaments in the spine to be overstretched
B
They can cause women to lose balance
C
They can reduce blood supply to the baby and mother
D
They can cause spinal fractures
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23/40: Which of the following should be avoided when programming exercise for those aged 14-16?
A
High-intensity strength training
B
Low-intensity strength training
C
Functional pushing exercises
D
Functional pulling exercises
24/40: According to the Food Standards Agency’s Eatwell Guide, which of the following food groups should make up the largest portion of food?
C
Meat, fish, eggs and beans
D
Foods and drinks high in sugar and/or fats
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25/40: Which of the following is a non-dairy source of dietary protein?
26/40: Which of the following is NOT a physiological function of water?
A
Regulation of body temperature
C
Elimination of waste products and materials
D
Regulation of heart rate
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27/40: Which of the following is a healthy source of dietary carbohydrates?
28/40: Which of the following energy balance equations would result in weight gain?
A
Energy intake is greater than energy expenditure
B
Energy intake is less than energy expenditure
C
Energy intake is equal to energy expenditure
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29/40: Which of the following conditions can occur because of a diet that is low in calcium?
30/40: Why is sunlight exposure so important for optimum bone health?
A
It stimulates the skin to produce vitamin C
B
It stimulates the skin to produce vitamin D
C
It encourages bones to produce calcium
D
It increases the production of phosphorous
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31/40: Obesity is classified as a body mass index greater than what?
32/40: Being able to change direction while maintaining speed is an example of which component of skill-based fitness?
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33/40: The phrase ‘use it or lose it’ describes which of the following principles of training?
34/40: Which of the following training approaches would best help a person to increase their anaerobic threshold?
A
Long-slow distance training
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35/40: Which of the following would be a valid reason for temporarily reducing the intensity of a training programme?
A
As a result of slow progress and limited improvement
B
As a result of rapid progress and fast improvement
C
When returning from injury or illness
36/40: Which of the following exercises would be contraindicated for children and adolescents?
A
Prolonged high-intensity exercises
D
Resistance training using barbells and dumbbells
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37/40: Which of the following exercises would be contraindicated during the final trimester of pregnancy?
A
Developmental stretches
D
Core stability exercises
38/40: Which of the following would be a reason to terminate an exercise session with a pregnant client?
A
Sudden swelling of the hands, face or ankles
B
Sudden increase in body temperature
C
Sudden increase in heart rate
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39/40: Which of the following is a national programme designed to increase the participation of people with disabilities in exercise and physical activity?
A
Exclusive fitness initiative
B
Inclusive fitness initiative
C
Disability discrimination act
40/40: According to Government guidelines, what is the minimum amount of physical activity adults in the UK should aim to complete each week?
A
100 minutes of moderate physical activity
B
120 minutes of moderate physical activity
C
150 minutes of moderate physical activity
D
175 minutes of moderate physical activity
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