HFE student taking a Level 3 anatomy and physiology exam
HFE student taking a Level 3 anatomy and physiology exam

Level 3 Anatomy and Physiology Mock Exam

The following Level 3 Anatomy and Physiology Mock Exam is provided as a FREE resource for any student working towards a health and fitness industry qualification that contains this exam, including personal training courses, yoga qualifications, Pilates qualifications and exercise referral.

This exam includes questions that cover a broad-range of knowledge and understanding across multiple subject areas, including the skeletal system, muscular system, cardiovascular system, nervous system, endocrine system, energy systems and bioenergetics.

There are 40 multiple-choice questions and you are required to answer 28 correctly to pass the exam.

Whether you are taking your assessment with HFE, or another training provider, feel free to use this mock exam resource as much as you like.

Enjoy and good luck.

1/40: Which of the following valves controls backflow of blood between the right atrium and ventricle?

A

Tricuspid

B

Bicuspid

C

Aortic

D

Pulmonary

2/40: Which of the following circulatory systems is responsible for delivering oxygen to the myocardium?

A

Pulmonary circulation

B

Coronary circulation

C

Systemic circulation

D

Blood system

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3/40: A hardening and stiffening of the artery wall is referred to as what?

A

Ischemia

B

Stenosis

C

Arteriosclerosis

D

Atherosclerosis

4/40: Which of the following would occur during a prolonged Valsalva maneuver?

A

Drop in blood pressure

B

Heart rate slows down

C

Reduced intra abdominal pressure

D

Blood pressure stabilises

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5/40: Which of the following adaptations would occur as a result of regular cardiovascular training?

A

Decreased blood volume

B

Decreased size of alveoli

C

Increased lactic acid production

D

Increased use of physiological dead space

6/40: Which of the following statements best describes a cross-bridge?

A

The attachment of the actin heads to a myosin filament

B

The release of calcium within a muscle

C

The attachment of troponin to tropomyosin

D

The attachment of the myosin heads to the actin filament

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7/40: Which of the following muscles attaches to the pubis and the medial surface of the tibia?

A

Pectineus

B

Gracilis

C

Tensor fasciae latae (TFL)

D

Piriformis

8/40: When performing a press-up, which of the following muscles would act as a fixator?

A

Pectoralis major

B

Posterior deltoid

C

Serratus anterior

D

Anterior deltoid

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9/40: Through which anatomical plane does the arm move, when laterally raising the arm?

A

Sagittal

B

Frontal

C

Transverse

D

None of the above

10/40: Which of the following muscles is an important spinal extensor, especially in prolonged activities?

A

Rectus abdominis

B

Sartorius

C

Multifidus

D

Rhomboids

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11/40: Why is the shoulder joint more prone to dislocation than the hip joint?

A

Because the glenoid fossa is deeper than the acetabulum

B

Because the acetabulum is deeper than the glenoid fossa

C

Because the arms perform more actions than the legs

D

Because the muscles in the shoulder are generally weaker than those at the hip

12/40: Which of the following movements occurs where the ankle joint?

A

Extension

B

Plantar flexion

C

Abduction

D

Elevation

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13/40: What is the name of the joint that connects the left and right side of the pelvis anteriorly?

A

Sacroiliac joint

B

Symphysis pubis

C

Acetabulum

D

Hip joint

14/40: Which of the following structures describes a broad, flat sheet of connective ligamentous tissue that spans the posterior surface of the lumbar spine?

A

Diaphragm

B

Ligamentum flavum

C

Tensor fasciae latae

D

Thoraco Lumbar Fascia

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15/40: With a severe kyphosis, which of the following complications is likely to occur?

A

An increased ability to engage the muscles in along the spine

B

Greater strength in the muscles on the anterior surface of the spine

C

Improved ability to rise from seated to standing positions

D

Excessive pressures exerted on the anterior portion of the intervertebral discs

16/40: Which of the following stretching techniques would have the greatest impact in improving flexibility?

A

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

B

Ballistic

C

Static

D

Dynamic

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17/40: Which of the following divisions of the nervous systems interprets sensory information?

A

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

B

Somatic nervous system (SNS)

C

Central nervous system (CNS)

D

Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

18/40: During exercise, which of the following neural responses would lead to the dilation of the arteries supplying oxygen to the active muscles?

A

Sympathetic action of the somatic nervous system

B

Parasympathetic action of the somatic nervous system

C

Sympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system

D

Parasympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system

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19/40: Which of the following anatomical structures insulates a neuron?

A

Axon

B

Myelin sheath

C

Dendrite

D

Node of ranvier

20/40: What is the name of the junction between adjacent nerve cells where chemical signals pass from one neuron to the next?

A

Dendrite

B

Synapse

C

Axon

D

Cell body

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21/40: When a motor unit is initially activated, which of the following occurs?

A

Around 25% the fibers controlled by the nerve will contract

B

Around 50% the fibers controlled by the nerve will contract

C

Around 75% the fibers controlled by the nerve will contract

D

All the fibers controlled by the nerve will contract

22/40: When the stretch reflex is activated in the hamstrings, the hamstrings muscle will:

A

Contract

B

Relax

C

Lengthen

D

Stretch

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23/40: When one muscle contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes. This is referred to as:

A

Stretch reflex

B

Autogenic inhibition

C

Reciprocal inhibition

D

Inverse stretch reflex

24/40: Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with resistance training?

A

An increased number of motor units

B

An increased number of muscle fibers

C

A more coordinated recruitment of motor units

D

Fewer muscle fibers per motor unit

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25/40: After a prolonged period without eating, which of the following hormones would increase blood glucose levels by breaking down stored glycogen?

A

Glucagon

B

Insulin

C

Growth Hormone

D

Thyroxine

26/40: A gland that secretes its hormones in to a specific area is known as what?

A

Exocrine glands

B

Endocrine glands

C

Androgen glands

D

Peptide glands

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27/40: Which of the following glands is located in the neck?

A

Pancreas

B

Anterior pituitary gland

C

Thyroid gland

D

Adrenal gland

28/40: The lactic acid system is the main contributor of energy when performing?

A

400m sprints

B

Long distance run

C

Endurance exercises

D

5000m row

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29/40: What is the approximate blood lactate level for the Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation (OBLA)?

A

2mmol/l

B

4mmol/l

C

6mmol/l

D

8mmol/l

30/40: Which of the following would be an adaptation of effective cardiovascular training?

A

Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation (OBLA) lowers

B

Maximum heart rate rises

C

Lactate threshold increases

D

Lactic acid tolerance lowers

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31/40: Which of the following describes 'glycogenolysis'?

A

The breakdown of lipids into fatty acids

B

The breakdown of glycogen into glucose

C

The breakdown of muscle tissue into amino acids

D

The breakdown of glucose into pyruvic acid

32/40: Which statement describes a negative feedback loop?

A

When blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas is stimulated and increases secretion of glucagon

B

When blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas is stimulated and decreases secretion of glucagon

C

When blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas is stimulated and increases secretion of insulin

D

When blood glucose levels are low, the pancreas is stimulated and decreases secretion of insulin

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33/40: Which of the following muscles attaches onto the ischium and the medial surface of the tibia?

A

Rectus femoris

B

Piriformis

C

Semitendinosus

D

Tensor fasciae latae

34/40: Which of the following glands release hormones that increase the metabolism of glucose, adipose tissue and proteins?

A

Pancreas

B

Adrenal

C

Parathyroid

D

Hypothalamus

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35/40: Which sensory organ registers pain signals in the body?

A

Thermoreceptors

B

Mechanoreceptors

C

Chemoreceptors

D

Nociceptors

36/40: Which of the following blood vessels is part of the coronary circulation?

A

Pulmonary artery

B

Pulmonary vein

C

Carotid artery

D

Circumflex artery

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37/40: Which of the following minerals is required to ensure a strong and forceful muscular contraction can occur?

A

Potassium

B

Calcium

C

Copper

D

Phosphorous

38/40: Which of the following exercises is performed in the transverse plane?

A

Bench press

B

Lateral raise

C

Prone plank

D

Squat

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39/40: Which of the following exercises is performed in the frontal plane?

A

Abdominal curl

B

Bicep curls

C

Bench press

D

Lateral raises

40/40: Which of the following muscles is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?

A

Supraspinatus

B

Infraspinatus

C

Teres minor

D

Teres major

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Level 3 Anatomy and Physiology Mock Exam

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